by W.B. Screws

The Pilgrim's Messenger

"Have a pattern of sound words which you hear from me, in faith and love
which are in Christ Jesus."--11 Timothy 1:13
Published Monthly By W. B. SCREWS, Glennville, Georgia
Twenty-five Cents a Year

Volume XVII

March, 1938

Number 8.

Entered at the postoffice at Glennville, Ga., as second-class matter.

All versions of the scriptures that I have ever seen, teach that all mankind will be saved.  And all versions that I have ever seen, except one, deny it.  What, then are we to believe? 

The King James Version, the one now that is most commonly used, says: 

"Therefore, as by the offense of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation, even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all unto justification of life," - Rom. 5:18. 

"For this is good and acceptable in the sight of God our Savior, who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the knowledge of the truth," - I Tim. 2:3, 4.  

"We trust in the living God, who is the savior of all men, specially of those who believe," - I Tim. 4:10.  

"For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive," - I Cor. 15:22.  

Now, do these passages mean what they say?  Is there justification for all?  Will God have all to be saved?  Is God the Savior of all?  Will all be made alive in Christ?  

Why do not people believe this?  Because the clergy would rather have them believe the passages that teach the opposite!  And why is this?  When people cannot believe two sets of passages that contradict each other, why do clergymen prefer that they believe those which deny the salvation of all, instead of those that affirm it?  Because they have come to think that fear of eternal torment, or of eternal death, is the lever needed to pry people loose from sin and get them to "accept Christ."  In other words, the love of God is not relied on; fear must be substituted.  

Does not this fact give us cause to suspect that passages which teach eternal torment, or eternal death, were mistranslated, to inject fear into the people?  If ministers today will use them, implying that Rom. 5:18; I Tim. 2:3; 4; I Tim. 4:10 and I Cor. 15:22, are not true is there any reason to doubt that the translators mistranslated, for the same purpose?  

There was no possibility of mistranslating the passages quoted so that they would teach the very opposite of what they say in the Greek.  It just couldn't be done, without changing every word in the passages.  This, they did not dare do!  

But they found this passage, "And these shall be coming away into eonian chastening," (kolasin aionion), Matt. 25:46, and they translated the two Greek words which I have placed in parentheses, "everlasting punishment."  In truth "kolasin" is chastening.  If Christ had meant punishment, He would have said "timorias."  This word is used in Heb. 10:29, and the King James Version correctly renders it "punishment."  

Timorias and kolasin are never used interchangeably in the original manuscripts.  Punishment is to satisfy the punishers; chastening is to benefit the chastened.  Discounting the sacrifice of Christ, (the Offering God prepared, and that satisfies Him), the clergy suppose God must punish, to get satisfaction.  Not so.  It is not even said in Heb. 10:29, that the ones mentioned here will be punished; it merely says they are worthy of punishment.  God will chasten - not punish!  

Aionion is aion, with the adjective ending.  No other word has been so badly abused by the translators.  In Ephesians, for instance, (to select a passage at random), aion is, according to the translators, "course" in 2:2; "age" in 2:7; "world" in 3:9; "eternal" in 3:11; and both "age" and "end" in 3:21.  Now, what do you think of this?  Can one word mean course, age, world, eternal and end?  The word is abused much worse than this, as we would see by examining other passages; but these examples are sufficient to convince the earnest reader that the translators cannot be trusted with the translation of "aion," and its adjective form.  

 The use of the word in the Greek text determines its meaning. "Before the aions," (I Cor. 2:7); "Before times aionion," (II Tim. 1:9); and "The conclusion of the aions," (Heb. 9:26), show that aion does not denote eternity.  The aions had a beginning, of else there could not have been time before the aions; they will have a conclusion, hence will not last eternally.  The English Dictionary says aion, or eon, is a vast period of time.  The most modern English spelling is eon.  There are more than one eon, but the first one had a beginning and the last one will have a conclusion.  

And yet, this word, aion, is the only Greek word that is so rendered in the King James Version, as to deny that all mankind will be saved.  This mistranslation denies Rom. 5:18; I Tim. 2:3, 4; I Tim. 4:10; and I Cor. 15:22, as they are rendered in that Version.  Yet, if we accept the meaning of aion as taught in I Cor. 2:7; II Tim. 1:9; and Heb. 9:26, we can see that those mentioned in Matt. 25:46 can have eonian chastening, and then be saved afterwards. 

If you mention this to the average minister who has a smattering of Greek, he will reply, "But the same word, 'aionion,' is used of those who go into life, in Matt. 25:46."  They think this clinches the matter.  But, see here!  The judgment mentioned in that passage, beginning with verse 31, will take place at the beginning of the kingdom, which must last a thousand years, (Rev. 20:5), and which must be follower by the last eon, (Rev. 21 and 22 down to verse 5), and both the life and the chastening MUST be eonian.  They cannot be other than that, while the eons last.  The righteous go into eonian life, and the others into eonian chastening.  Nothing can be called eternal until the eons end.  

Eternal chastening would be a farce.  How could it benefit the chastened?  For that matter, how could eternal punishment benefit anyone?  Could it satisfy God?  If so, what a Fiend He must be!  May He deal graciously with me for even thinking that sentence!  

"American" is "America" with the adjective ending.  If I say, "I saw an American river," I could as well have said, "I saw a river in America."  Thus, also, eonian chastening is chastening in the eons.  

The believer is promised eonian life John 3:16; the unbeliever shall not have it.  When the consummation of the eons comes the believer will continue to live, but it then becomes eternal life.  At that time death, (Rev. 20:14), shall be abolished, (I Cor. 15:22-28) and all shall have life.  God is the special Savior of the believer, (I Tim. 4:10), and he shall have eonian life.  God is the Savior of all mankind, (same verse), and all shall have eternal life after the eons.  

The translators found this passage, "Who shall incur the justice of eonian extermination," (olethron aionion), II Thess. 1:19, and they translated the two Greed words shown here, "everlasting destruction."  Extermination is the correct rendering, but it is EONIAN, not everlasting, extermination.  They can have this inflicted on them, and yet be saved, just as the first-quoted passages teach.  

Mark 3:28 says, quoting Christ, "Verily I am saying to you that the penalty of all the sins shall be pardoned the sons of mankind, and the blasphemies whatsoever they should be blaspheming, yet whosoever should be blaspheming the holy spirit is having no pardon for the eon, but is liable to the penalty of an eonian sin."  The King James translators made Christ say that the one blaspheming the holy spirit  "hath never forgiveness, but is in danger of eternal damnation"  

The Greek word for "never," oudepo, is absent from the passage.  And again they mishandle "aion."  According to them, that word is both, "never" and "eternal."  And if there is any word that is the exact opposite of eternal, it is never.  Thus they make aion mean two opposite things, in one passage!  

Christ said the penalty of all sins and blasphemies SHALL BE PARDONED.  Did He then say, in the very next breath, that one blasphemy SHALL NEVER BE PARDONED?  Do you not see what this means?  It would make Christ reverse Himself!  

One certain blasphemy shall not be pardoned for the eon; the one committing it is liable to the penalty of an eonian sin.  All this can be true, and Rom. 5:18; I Tim. 2:3, 4; I Tim. 4:10; and I Cor. 15: 22, still be true.  

If the translators had correctly rendered this one little word, "aion," and its adjective form, there would not have been a passage in their Version to deny the justification, salvation and vivification of all mankind. 

Don't try to reason about it.  Just believe God.  Don't drag in faith as a prerequisite for the salvation of all.  Investigate all passages dealing with this, and remember that "eternal" and "everlasting" are mistranslations, and that eon or eonian is in those passages.  Then you will see that faith is necessary for eonian life - not for eternal or everlasting life.  

The one exception mentioned in the first paragraph - the one Version that does not deny the salvation of all mankind - is the Concordant Version, Published by the Concordant Publishing Concern, 2823 East Sixth St., Los Angeles, California.  It would be a great happiness to you if you possessed a copy.  

Does not the phrase, "the everlasting God," in Rom. 16:26, teach that God is eternal?  And would not the rendering, "eonian God," limit Him to the eons?  No, to both questions.  The fact that He is God, shows Him to be eternal.  "Eonian" speaks of His relationship to the eons, when He is so much needed!  Is "King eternal," in I Tim. 1:17, a correct rendering?  It is not!  "The King of the eons," is correct. 

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